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I recently typed a consult letter for a gastroenterologist. This was the impression:
Impression: Nausea and vomiting with questionable tarry stools, possibly melena.
He sent the consult back to me to make corrections. These corrections were handwritten on the original consult.
Impression: Nausea and vomiting with melanotic stool.
Now....I know I'm not nuts and I know I'm not stupid, and I KNOW that melena pertains to blood in the stool and melanotic pertains to pigmentation. This doc clearly wrote "melanotic". Do I need to show him a medical dictionary????
The issue was raised with Dr. John Dirckx, physician and linguist, who writes for the JAAMT, on whether melenotic was a legitimate term since it is not found in two of the most widely used medical dictionaries.
He said:
quote:
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"Melenotic 'refering to melena' is no more irregular in formation than amniotic, congressional, diphtheritic, operatic, psoriatic, syphylitic, and countless other adjectives that no one dreams of questioning."
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My personal preference is to use 'melenic'; however, if a doctor insists on tacking on the "otic" and expects to see it typed that way, it appears that you can legitimately offer 'melenotic'. Melanotic, however, does not refer to melena and should never be used as such.