Technically not incorrect but...SM - Anon

Posted: Dec 7th, 2017 - 6:51 am In Reply to: How is "the patient did undergo" incorrect? - nm

clumsy phrasing. If you're on strict verbatim, you'd have to leave it as is.

Post A Reply Reply By Email Options

Use Rich Text Editor with Full Options CLOSE

Edit/Delete Message

Report this message

X CLOSE

Complete Discussion Below: (

marks the location of current message within thread)

Hyphen Rule - should it be sm - MT30 (Views: 1600, 2017-12-04, 10:11 am)
- Yes. Only before the noun. - English (Views: 771, 2017-12-04, 10:51 am)
  - Implied noun - see msg (Views: 504, 2017-12-06, 9:03 pm)
    - implied noun does not apply here. "He" is the noun already in the sentence - nm (Views: 640, 2017-12-07, 9:55 am)
      - "He" is the subject, while also being a noun. - sm (Views: 471, 2017-12-11, 8:51 pm)
- Your second example is correct...SM - Old Anon (Views: 734, 2017-12-04, 3:07 pm)
- the only reason it is correct is because you have seen it that way for too long - StillAnMT (Views: 612, 2017-12-04, 3:46 pm)
  - Thanks all!! - MT30 (Views: 492, 2017-12-04, 4:18 pm)
  - Your analogy fails. Has to be "well baked" not "baking" to - make your analogy fit this case. nm (Views: 452, 2017-12-07, 4:16 am)
- We are used to lots of incorrect phrasing - stillanMT (Views: 484, 2017-12-04, 4:21 pm)
  - What's your point?...SM - Old Anon (Views: 484, 2017-12-05, 4:38 pm)
    - your brain would make it correct IF - StillAnMT (Views: 362, 2017-12-20, 9:41 am)
  - How is "the patient did undergo" incorrect? - nm (Views: 473, 2017-12-06, 6:59 pm)
    - Technically not incorrect but...SM - Anon
      - I respectfully disagree. If the patient had not undergone - sm (Views: 443, 2017-12-11, 2:32 pm)
- Yes, rule is hyphens before noun, no hyphens after - nm (Views: 676, 2017-12-05, 8:12 pm)